Tuesday, October 28, 2025

A-Level English Grammar Assessment Time Allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes Total Marks: 100

 A-Level English Grammar Assessment

Time Allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes
Total Marks: 100

Candidate Instructions

  • Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
  • Write clearly and legibly
  • You may use a dictionary but not a grammar reference book
  • The number of marks is given in brackets at the end of each question

Section A: Syntax and Sentence Structure (25 marks)

Question 1 (6 marks)

Identify and classify the following sentences by type (simple, compound, complex, compound-complex). Then, for complex and compound-complex sentences, identify all subordinate clauses and state their function (noun, adjective, or adverb clause).

a) Although the weather was inclement, the match proceeded as scheduled.

b) The committee reviewed the proposal, but they deferred their decision until the following week.

c) What surprised me most was that nobody questioned the validity of the data that had been presented.

Question 2 (7 marks)

Parse the following sentence completely, identifying:

  • The main clause(s)
  • All subordinate clauses and their types
  • The subject and predicate of each clause
  • The function of each phrase

"The scientist who had discovered the anomaly believed that further investigation would reveal whether the initial hypothesis, which many colleagues had doubted, could be substantiated."

Question 3 (6 marks)

Correct the following sentences, identifying the grammatical error(s) in each:

a) Between you and I, this is the most difficult exam I've ever took.

b) The data shows that each of the participants were given different instructions.

c) Having eaten dinner, the television was watched by the family.

Question 4 (6 marks)

Rewrite the following sentences in the voice indicated (active to passive or passive to active), ensuring all grammatical elements are correctly transformed:

a) The review board will have evaluated all applications by Friday. (to passive)

b) Significant improvements in air quality have been observed by environmental scientists over the past decade. (to active)

c) Someone should have told me about the change in schedule. (to passive)


Section B: Parts of Speech and Morphology (20 marks)

Question 5 (8 marks)

For each underlined word in the following passage, identify its part of speech and explain its function in the sentence:

"The increasingly complex nature of modern communication presents considerable challenges. What concerns linguists most is that younger generations may develop neither a strong command of formal register nor an appreciation of stylistic nuance."

Question 6 (6 marks)

Identify the tense, aspect, and mood of the verb phrases in the following sentences:

a) By next June, I shall have been studying French for six years.

b) If I were to reconsider my position, would you support the revised proposal?

c) The committee insists that every member submit their report by Monday.

Question 7 (6 marks)

Explain the morphological composition of the following words, identifying all prefixes, roots, suffixes, and their meanings:

a) unprecedented

b) demystification

c) irreconcilable


Section C: Agreement and Concord (15 marks)

Question 8 (9 marks)

Correct the following sentences where necessary, explaining the rules of agreement that apply:

a) Neither the director nor the actors was satisfied with the final cut.

b) The majority of the evidence suggest that the hypothesis is correct.

c) Each of the students have their own interpretation of the text.

d) Ten pounds are too much to pay for that book.

e) The committee have reached their decision.

f) One of the most significant factors are the economic implications.

Question 9 (6 marks)

Complete the following sentences with the appropriate form of the verb in brackets, and explain your choice:

a) The number of applicants _______ (have/has) increased significantly this year.

b) A number of applicants _______ (have/has) expressed concerns about the process.

c) Neither the reviews nor the publicity _______ (have/has) affected sales.


Section D: Punctuation and Mechanics (15 marks)

Question 10 (8 marks)

Punctuate the following passage correctly, adding or removing punctuation as necessary:

"the question however remained unanswered had the team who were working under considerable pressure achieved their objective furthermore could the results which appeared promising withstand rigorous peer review as dr williams the lead researcher observed we must be cautious in our interpretation"

Question 11 (7 marks)

Explain the difference in meaning created by punctuation in the following pairs:

a) "The students, who completed the assignment on time, received full marks."
"The students who completed the assignment on time received full marks."

b) "Let's eat, Grandma!"
"Let's eat Grandma!"

c) "The author said the critic was mistaken."
"The author, said the critic, was mistaken."

Then construct a sentence of your own where a semicolon would be essential for clarity.


Section E: Grammatical Analysis and Usage (25 marks)

Question 12 (10 marks)

Write a detailed analysis of the grammatical structure and stylistic features of the following passage. Your analysis should cover:

  • Sentence variety and complexity
  • Use of subordination and coordination
  • Verb tense and aspect choices
  • Any notable grammatical or rhetorical devices

"It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife. However little known the feelings or views of such a man may be on his first entering a neighbourhood, this truth is so well fixed in the minds of the surrounding families, that he is considered the rightful property of some one or other of their daughters."

Question 13 (8 marks)

Identify and correct the grammatical errors in the following paragraph. There are EIGHT errors in total:

"The affects of climate change is becoming increasingly apparent. Less than half of the population understand the severity of the situation, and between the government and environmental organisations, there is little consensus about the most effective strategy. If one was to analyse the data objectively, they would see that immediate action are required. Each nation must do their part, regardless of whether their contribution seems significant or not."

Question 14 (7 marks)

Explain the grammatical principles that govern the following:

a) Why is "whom" correct in "To whom it may concern" but not in "Who did you see?"? (3 marks)

b) Explain the difference between restrictive and non-restrictive relative clauses, providing an example of each. (4 marks)


MARKING SCHEME

Section A: Syntax and Sentence Structure (25 marks)

Question 1 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per sentence:

a) Complex sentence (1 mark). Subordinate clause: "Although the weather was inclement" - adverb clause of concession (1 mark).

b) Compound sentence (1 mark). Two independent clauses joined by coordinating conjunction "but" (1 mark).

c) Compound-complex sentence (1 mark). Noun clause: "What surprised me most" (subject); Noun clause: "that nobody questioned the validity of the data that had been presented" (subject complement); Adjective clause: "that had been presented" (modifying "data") (1 mark for identifying all clauses).

Question 2 (7 marks)

Award marks for identifying:

  • Main clause: "The scientist believed" (1 mark)
  • Adjective clause: "who had discovered the anomaly" (modifying scientist) (1 mark)
  • Noun clause: "that further investigation would reveal" (object of believed) (1 mark)
  • Noun clause: "whether the initial hypothesis could be substantiated" (object of would reveal) (1 mark)
  • Adjective clause: "which many colleagues had doubted" (modifying hypothesis) (1 mark)
  • Subject of main clause: "The scientist who had discovered the anomaly" (1 mark)
  • Predicate of main clause: "believed that further investigation would reveal..." (1 mark)

Question 3 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per correction (1 for identifying error, 1 for correction):

a) Error: "between you and I" (objective case required) and "I've ever took" (past participle required). Correction: "Between you and me, this is the most difficult exam I've ever taken."

b) Error: "data shows" (data is plural) and "each...were" (singular verb required). Correction: "The data show that each of the participants was given different instructions."

c) Error: Dangling modifier. Correction: "Having eaten dinner, the family watched television" or "After dinner was eaten, the television was watched by the family."

Question 4 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per transformation:

a) All applications will have been evaluated by the review board by Friday.

b) Environmental scientists have observed significant improvements in air quality over the past decade.

c) I should have been told about the change in schedule.

Section B: Parts of Speech and Morphology (20 marks)

Question 5 (8 marks)

Award 1 mark per correct identification:

  • increasingly: adverb (modifying "complex")
  • presents: verb (main verb of sentence)
  • challenges: noun (object of verb)
  • What: pronoun (introduces noun clause, subject of "concerns")
  • most: adverb (modifying "concerns")
  • that: conjunction (introduces noun clause)
  • neither: correlative conjunction/adverb
  • nor: correlative conjunction

Question 6 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per answer:

a) Future perfect continuous tense; indicative mood

b) Past subjunctive mood (were); conditional mood (would support); present infinitive (to reconsider)

c) Present tense; subjunctive mood (mandative subjunctive after "insists")

Question 7 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per word:

a) un- (prefix: not) + precedent (root: coming before) + -ed (suffix: past participle/adjective)

b) de- (prefix: removal/reversal) + mysti- (root: mystery) + -fic (root: make) + -ation (suffix: process/result)

c) ir- (prefix: not) + re- (prefix: again) + concile (root: bring together) + -able (suffix: capable of being)

Section C: Agreement and Concord (15 marks)

Question 8 (9 marks)

Award 1.5 marks per correction (0.5 for identifying error, 1 for explanation):

a) Incorrect. Should be "were" - verb agrees with the nearest subject (actors) in neither/nor construction.

b) Incorrect. Should be "suggests" - "majority" as a singular entity takes singular verb.

c) Incorrect. Should be "has his or her own interpretation" - "each" is singular.

d) Correct when referring to money as a single sum. "Is" would be correct here.

e) Acceptable either way depending on British/American usage and whether committee is seen as unit or individuals.

f) Incorrect. Should be "is" - "one" is the subject (singular), not "factors."

Question 9 (6 marks)

Award 2 marks per answer:

a) has - "the number" is singular

b) have - "a number of" is plural

c) has - verb agrees with "publicity" (nearest subject in neither/nor)

Section D: Punctuation and Mechanics (15 marks)

Question 10 (8 marks)

Award 1 mark for each correctly punctuated section:

"The question, however, remained unanswered: had the team, who were working under considerable pressure, achieved their objective? Furthermore, could the results, which appeared promising, withstand rigorous peer review? As Dr Williams, the lead researcher, observed, 'We must be cautious in our interpretation.'"

Question 11 (7 marks)

Award 2 marks per explanation, 1 mark for semicolon sentence:

a) First sentence: all students (non-restrictive). Second sentence: only those students (restrictive).

b) First: invitation to dine together. Second: cannibalistic suggestion (vocative comma matters!).

c) First: author made statement. Second: critic made statement about author.

Semicolon sentence example: "I enjoy reading; my sister prefers television." (Any correct usage accepted)

Section E: Grammatical Analysis and Usage (25 marks)

Question 12 (10 marks)

Award marks for identifying:

  • Opening sentence uses formal, balanced periodic structure (2 marks)
  • Use of passive voice ("is acknowledged") for universal statement (1 mark)
  • Modal verb "must" expressing supposed necessity (1 mark)
  • Complex sentence structure with multiple subordinate clauses (2 marks)
  • Second sentence uses extensive subordination to build logical argument (2 marks)
  • Formal register and rhetorical balance (1 mark)
  • Use of passive voice "is considered" for social judgment (1 mark)

Question 13 (8 marks)

Award 1 mark per error identified and corrected:

  1. "affects" → "effects"
  2. "is becoming" → "are becoming"
  3. "Less than half" → "Fewer than half"
  4. "understand" → "understands"
  5. "between" → "among" (more than two parties)
  6. "one was" → "one were" (subjunctive)
  7. "they would" → "he or she would"
  8. "action are" → "action is"

Question 14 (7 marks)

a) (3 marks): "Whom" is objective case and correct in "To whom" because it's object of preposition "to." In informal speech, "Who did you see?" is common, but formally it should be "Whom did you see?" as it's the object of "see." However, "who" at the beginning of a question is increasingly accepted in modern usage.

b) (4 marks): Restrictive (defining) clauses provide essential information and take no commas: "The students who failed must retake the exam." Non-restrictive (non-defining) clauses add extra information and require commas: "The students, who were all tired, went home." (2 marks for explanation, 1 mark per example)


GRADE BOUNDARIES

  • 90-100 marks: Grade A* (Outstanding command of grammar)
  • 80-89 marks: Grade A (Excellent grammatical knowledge)
  • 70-79 marks: Grade B (Very good understanding)
  • 60-69 marks: Grade C (Good working knowledge)
  • 50-59 marks: Grade D (Satisfactory understanding)
  • 40-49 marks: Grade E (Basic competence)
  • Below 40: Grade U (Ungraded)

Examiner Notes

This assessment tests comprehensive understanding of:

  • Syntactic analysis and sentence structure
  • Morphological awareness
  • Subject-verb and pronoun-antecedent agreement
  • Advanced punctuation rules
  • Grammatical terminology and metalinguistic knowledge
  • Application of grammatical principles in context
  • Critical analysis of grammatical choices in literary texts

Candidates should demonstrate both theoretical knowledge and practical application of grammatical principles at an advanced level appropriate for pre-university study.

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